No pogroms before the British allowed immigrant Jewish communities to purchase land from absentee landlords in Lebanon, Syria and elsewhere; no pogroms before those communities boycotted Arab goods, refused to employ Arabs or sell them land. In short, no pogroms before European Jews began colonizing Palestine (and that violence was reciprocated).

I am offering no justifications; just contextualization. The violence was not based on racism. However, Zionism is.

And if Pogroms are the arab answer for “boycotts” are other action which any free man can do,than you are real evil.

The official policy of the PLO prior to the 1980s–when they capitulated and accepted the (inherently racist) “two-state solution” of the West–was a single state, with freedom and equality for all its citizens (including Jews). This does not sound very racist to me.

What you call “boycotts” and European colonialism/land appropriation are very different things. The boycott was merely a component.